Evolution Unit Test

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____	1.	
Which lobe of the brain is designated by number 4?

a.	occipital lobe	c.	frontal lobe	
b.	parietal lobe	d.	temporal lobe	

____	2.	Which part of the brain forms responses such as thought and movement?
a.	Cerebrum	c.	Brain stem	
b.	Cerebellum	d.	Spinal cord	

____	3.	Which of the following is a function of your brain stem?
a.	To stimulate the muscles that maintain your balance	
b.	To produce signals that allow you to move	
c.	To coordinate your heart beat and breathing	
d.	To gather impulses from your PNS	

____	4.	Humans and chimps have over 98% shared DNA. Humans and mice have 90% shared DNA. This means that
a.	Humans and mice are more closely related than humans and chimps.	
b.	Humans and chimps are more closely related than humans and mice.	
c.	Chimps and mice are more closely related than humans and chimps.	
d.	You cannot make a judgment on how closely the species are related without more information.	

____	5.	The scientific theory of evolution is supported by different types of evidence. The diagrams below show the skeletons of two different animal species. How does comparing the skeletons of these animals provide support for the scientific theory of evolution?

a.	It provides information about the organisms’ habitats.	
b.	It shows possible common ancestry between organisms.	
c.	It provides information to determine the organisms’ ages.	
d.	It shows possible chromosomal similarities between organisms.	

____	6.	Scientists have found evidence that about 2.4 million years ago a gene regulating jaw muscles mutated and may have led to the more graceful human jaw we see today. The diagram below shows the skulls of 3 hominid species.

Which statement below most closely explains the link between jaw size and hominid evolution?
a.	The jaws of hominids evolved to be smaller and less protruding over time.	
b.	The jaws of hominids evolved to be larger and more protruding over time.	
c.	There appears to be no change in the jaws of hominids over time.	
d.	The jaws of hominids changed over time due to a change in brain size.	

____	7.	The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms.

Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram?
a.	The organisms share a common ancestry.	
b.	The organisms belong to the same genus.	
c.	The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.	
d.	The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.	

____	8.	Which of the following best describes vestigial structures?
a.	Vestigial structures are similar structurally and functionally to comparable structures in other organisms.	
b.	Vestigial structures are small structures that are not present in close relatives..	
c.	Vestigial structures are well-developed structures that have a different function in close relatives.	
d.	Vestigial structures are functionless or rudimentary homologs of characters that are functional in close relatives.	

____	9.	Structures that perform a similar function but arise from different ancestral structure are called:
a.	Heritable traits	c.	Analogous structures	
b.	Homologous structures	d.	Divergent traits	

____	10.	Which of the following statements is correct?
a.	Individuals do not evolve, genes do evolve.	
b.	Individuals do not evolve, populations do evolve.	
c.	Populations do not evolve, individuals do evolve.	
d.	Populations do not evolve, species do evolve.	

____	11.	The creation of several new species from a single parent species is called:
a.	Balanced polymorphism	c.	Inheritance of acquired characteristics	
b.	Adaptive radiation	d.	Stabilizing selection	

____	12.	Why does convergent evolution make it difficult to identify related species by morphological characteristics?
a.	It creates homologous structures	
b.	It casts doubt on the area in which a species evolved	
c.	It creates one species from two different species	
d.	It creates analogous structures	

____	13.	What was the first trait to separate hominids from the rest of the primate family?
a.	bipedalism	c.	lessening of body hair	
b.	making tools	d.	Using a stick to eat termites	

____	14.	Which of the following is an example of divergent evolution?
a.	An ancestor wolf species evolving into an arctic wolf in the arctic and a gray wolf in the US	
b.	The evolution of fins in both dolphins and sharks	
c.	The evolution of brightly colored feathers in peacocks	
d.	The evolution of antibiotic resistant bacteria	

____	15.	
The diagram below represents possible evolutionary pathways of certain organisms. 

Which species is most closely related to crocodiles?
a.	birds	c.	primates	
b.	sharks	d.	rodents	

____	16.	Some characteristics of a recently discovered organism are listed in the following table. 

Based on the given characteristics, this organism would be classified in which kingdom?
a.	bacteria	c.	plantae	
b.	fungi	d.	Protista	

____	17.	Which kingdoms have photosynthetic organisms?
a.	fungi and plants	c.	protists and plants	
b.	fungi and protists	d.	plants and animals	

____	18.	Why are protists nicknamed the “junk-drawer” kingdom?
a.	They are the only kingdom to contain both autotrophs and heterotrophs and mobile and non-mobile organisms	
b.	They are the only kingdom to contain both eukaryotes and prokaryotes	
c.	They actively engulf the excrement of other organisms	
d.	They are multicellular and form drawers when mating	

____	19.	
Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they developed an evolutionary tree, as shown below.

What information about the organisms best helps the scientists to determine the evolutionary relationships among them?
a.	DNA sequences	c.	Habitat types	
b.	Anatomical features	d.	Reproductive Strategies	

____	20.	One of the accepted scientific theories describing the origin of life on Earth is known as chemical evolution. According to this theory, which of the following events would need to occur first for life to evolve?
a.	onset of photosynthesis	c.	Synthesis of organic molecules	
b.	origin of genetic material	d.	formation of the plasma membrane	

____	21.	The Miller-Urey experiment of 1953 was designed to test the hypothesis that lightning supplied the energy needed to turn atmospheric gases into organic molecules such as amino acids. Which of the following describes why the Miller-Urey theory is widely accepted today?
a.	Amino acids spontaneously form from molecules in the atmosphere today.	
b.	Organic molecules are present today in extremely high concentrations.	
c.	The process of synthesizing organic molecules from a mixture of gases has been successfully modeled in the laboratory.	
d.	No other alternative hypotheses have been introduced.	

____	22.	What discovery supports the hypothesis that RNA was the genetic material in the earliest organisms?
a.	Ribozymes are RNA that can self-replicate.	
b.	DNA does not require enzymes to replicate.	
c.	RNA stores genetic information on ribozymes.	
d.	Chains of RNA will form lipid membranes.	

____	23.	In the lipid membrane hypothesis, it is proposed that liposomes
a.	formed in chimney-like structures at ocean hydrothermal vents.	
b.	were the result of lightning striking early Earth.	
c.	acted as barriers between organic molecules and the environment.	
d.	served as the genetic material on early Earth.	

____	24.	Gene flow __________.
a.	causes populations to diverge from each other	
b.	prevents the spread of alleles (traits) through a species	
c.	cannot influence the evolution of a population	
d.	makes populations more genetically similar	

____	25.	Which of the following is not a prerequisite for natural selection's operation?
a.	More offspring than can possibly survive	c.	An innate desire to change	
b.	Differential reproduction	d.	Competition for resources	

____	26.	In nature, some individuals inherit adaptations that allow them to survive and produce more offspring than other individuals. As a result, the adaptations will become more common in the population through the process of
a.	Divergent evolution	c.	Genetic drift	
b.	Natural selection	d.	Reproductive isolation	

____	27.	A virus killed most of the seals in the North Sea (e.g., dropped the population from 8000 to 800). In an effort to help preserve the species, scientists caught 20 seals and used them to start a new population in the northwest Pacific Ocean. Which of the following least describes the events that happened?
a.	genetic flow	c.	inbreeding	
b.	genetic drift	d.	bottleneck effect	

____	28.	What is the role of randomness, or chance, in mutation and natural selection?
a.	Both mutations and natural selection are random	
b.	Mutation is random but natural selection is not	
c.	Natural selection is random but mutation is not	
d.	Neither mutations or natural selection are random	

____	29.	Which of the following best illustrates natural selection?
a.	An organism with favorable genetic variations will tend to survive and breed successfully.	
b.	A population monopolizes all of the resources in its habitat, forcing other species to migrate.	
c.	A community whose members work together utilizing all existing resources and migratory routes.	
d.	The largest organisms in a species receive the only breeding opportunities.	

____	30.	Theodosius Dobzhansky discovered that successful species tend to have a wide variety of genes that do not appear to be useful to the species in its present environment. What did this discovery help explain about genetics and the changes that occur in a species over time?
a.	Environments with more organisms tend to have more successful species.	
b.	Species with greater genetic diversity adapt more easily to changing environments.	
c.	Changing environments prevent species from adapting and surviving.	
d.	Species in a stable environment are more resistant to a changing environment.	

____	31.	A small portion of the population that is geographically isolated from the rest of the population runs the risk of increased.
a.	genetic drift	c.	natural selection	
b.	mutation rate	d.	genetic variation	

____	32.	The evolution of new traits is possible because:
a.	selection can anticipate future environmental changes.	
b.	mutation and recombination during sexual reproduction produce variation.	
c.	selection can act on the expression of existing traits in new tissue/organs or at new developmental periods leading to novel functions.	
d.	The last two are both reasons why selection can lead to new traits.	

____	33.	A natural population of plants has greatly varying flower height. Over many generations more and more plants have flowers of medium height, while there are very few with very short or very tall flowers. What type of selection has acted here?
a.	Disruptive selection	c.	Directional selection	
b.	Stabilizing selection	d.	Artificial selection	

____	34.	The breeding of dogs by humans to have a particular coat color is an example
a.	Balanced polymorphism	c.	Inheritance of acquired characteristics	
b.	Artificial selection	d.	macroevolution	

____	35.	The forces of evolution include
a.	natural selection.	c.	genetic flow.	
b.	gene drift.	d.	all of the above	

____	36.	Tuberculosis is a disease caused by a bacterium and can often be fatal. For several decades, antibiotics were very successful in killing tuberculosis bacteria, but now strains of the bacteria have developed that can only be killed when treated for long periods of time with multiple types of antibiotics. Why have the antibiotics become less effective against tuberculosis?
a.	The antibiotics have a tendency to become weaker over time as they accumulate mutations.	
b.	Those bacteria that have once come in contact with antibiotics learn to avoid them and are difficult to kill.	
c.	Human immune systems have adapted to the presence of bacteria, causing antibiotics to be less effective.	
d.	Any bacteria with mutations protecting them from the antibiotics were more likely to live and pass on the mutations	

____	37.	The pH of the water in several lakes in Norway and Sweden had decreased to below 5.0 due to an increase in acid rain. Which of the following is most likely to happen in these lakes? 
a.	the decline of several fish populations.	c.	an increase in the amount of primary producers	
b.	an increase in numbers of fish	d.	increased predator-prey relationships	

____	38.	The graph below shows atmospheric carbon dioxide levels since the year 1880.

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a.	Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels are responsible for global temperature change	c.	Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have remained the same over the past century	
b.	Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been rising at about the same rate for the past century.	d.	Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been rising at an increasingly higher rate as the past century has progressed.